How can this happen?

Dear Editor:

Your newspaper carried an article July 16 that leaves me very puzzled, and I wonder where I can get an answer. The article states that "In a couple of weeks, same-sex couples in Wisconsin will be allowed to declare domestic partnerships and take advantage of some of the rights and benefits extended to married couples."

Yet, next to this article is a Timeline that tells us that in March 2004, "the Wisconsin Assembly and Senate approved a constitutional amendment:

"Only a marriage between one man and one woman shall be valid or recognized as a marriage in this state. A legal status identical or substantially similar to that of married for unmarried individuals shall not be valid or recognized in this state."

A year later, the Senate voted a second time in favor of the amendment, and a year after that, the Assembly voted a second time in favor of the amendment.

That same year (2006) Wisconsin voters passed the amendment by a 59 to 41 percent margin. And then, miraculously, our governor does some fancy sleight of hand and all of a sudden passes the state budget -- which includes domestic partnerships for same-sex couples! He signs it and wholla – a domestic partnership law goes into effect!

What am I missing here? When the people of Wisconsin vote on something, and it passes, doesn't that mean that "we the people" have spoken? Does he really have the legal ability to throw out our votes? If he can circumvent our votes like this, what more can he do -- and get by with it? What are laws for? What does our Constitution say about situations like this? Is no one in government accountable to anyone anymore? America -- wake up!

Tags: same sex, opinion, letters, marriage